CSET Science Test Prep and Practice Questions

CSET Science Practice Questions

Question 1

Which of the following is not an example of a scientific model?

1. a graph of monthly precipitation
2. a flowchart of the life cycle of a grasshopper
3. the formula for Newton’s second law of motion
4. a piece of lunar rock

Correct Answer: 4

Explanations:

1. A graph is an example of a visual model or representation of data or phenomena.
2. A flowchart is a visual model or representation of phenomena.
3. The formula for Newton’s second law of motion is a mathematical model or representation of phenomena.
4. A piece of lunar rock is not a model; it is an actual sample.

Question 2

Which type of investigation has one manipulated variable, but the researcher chooses experimental groups rather than assigning them randomly?

1. Quasi-experimental research
2. Correlational research
3. Single-variable research
4. Experimental research

Correct Answer: 1

Explanations:

1. Quasi-experimental research involves the researcher choosing experimental groups. For example, a researcher may choose two different schools and implement a healthy eating campaign in one school and not in the other.
2. Correlational research involves the manipulation of two different variables and investigates possible relationships between the variables.
3. Single-variable research has only one manipulated variable and no other controlled conditions. A researcher making observations before and after asking a question is an example of this type of research.
4. Experimental research takes place under carefully controlled conditions.

Question 3

Which of the following correctly explains the difference between heat and thermal energy in science?

1. An object has thermal energy but heat is transferred between objects.
2. An object has heat but thermal energy is transferred between objects.
3. There is no difference. Heat and thermal energy are the same thing.
4. Heat is a measure of how hot an object is, whereas thermal energy is a measure of how fast the object’s molecules move.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanations:

1. The energy transferred because of a temperature difference is heat. The internal energy of an object is thermal energy.
2. The terms “heat” and “thermal energy” are reversed here.
3. Heat and thermal energy are not the same. One is a process, the other is a quantity.
4. Both definitions are describing temperature.

Question 4

Which of the following will give off energy if used as fuel in a fission reaction?

1. helium (He)
2. beryllium (Be)
3. thorium (Th)
4. hydrogen (H)

Correct Answer: 3

Explanations:

1. Helium is a very light element and is not suited for fission.
2. Beryllium is a light element and is not suited for fission.
3. Fission is the splitting of heavy elements into lighter elements. All elements heavier than iron emit energy during fission.
4. The nucleus of hydrogen is a single proton. Hydrogen cannot fission.

Question 5

Which of the following pathways provides organisms with the most energy?

1. Glycolysis
2. electron transport chain
3. Krebs cycle
4. fermentation

Correct Answer:  2

Explanations:

1. Glycolysis results in the net gain of 2 ATP.
2. The electron transport chain results in the production of 34 ATP.
3. The Krebs cycle results in the production of 2 ATP for every molecule of pyruvate used.
4. Fermentation results in the net gain of 2 ATP.

Question 6

Which of the following is true of the light-dependent and light-independent reactions of photosynthesis?

1. The light-dependent reactions take place in the thylakoid membrane, and the light-independent reactions take place in the stroma.
2. The light-dependent reactions produce some reactants needed for the light-independent reactions, and the light-independent reactions produce some reactants needed for the light-dependent reactions.
3. The light-dependent reactions require energy from the Sun, and light-independent reactions do not.
4. All of the above are true.

Correct Answer: 4

Explanations:

1. The photosystems for the light-dependent reactions are located in the thylakoid membrane.
2. The light-dependent reactions produce NADPH and ATP, and the light-independent reactions produce NADP+ and ADP + P.
3. The light-independent reactions, also called the Calvin Cycle, are so named because they do not require solar energy. However, the light-independent reactions do require products made in the light-dependent reactions, so they cannot continue in the dark indefinitely.
4. All the statements are true of the light-dependent and light-independent reactions.

Question 7

Which of the following statements most accurately describes an igneous rock?

1. a light, very porous rock with visible holes, grains that are too small to see, and no fossils
2. a rock with wavy bands of minerals that is very hard and has visible crystals
3. a rock that is soft and grainy
4. a rock that appears to have been formed from cemented pieces of other rocks

Correct Answer: 1

Explanations:

1. A light, porous rock with visible holes, small grains, and no fossils is most likely pumice, an igneous rock. Igneous rocks never contain fossils. They can be porous, glassy, or crystalline depending on where and how they formed.
2. Very hard rocks with visible crystals and wavy bands of minerals are metamorphic rocks.
3. Soft, grainy rocks, such as shale or sandstone, are sedimentary rocks.
4. Rocks formed by cementation of other particles are sedimentary rocks.

Question 8

Which of the following soil types is best for general gardening?

1. sand
2. peat
3. clay
4. loam

Correct Answer: 4

Explanations:

1. Sand does not hold water and therefore makes it difficult for plants to remain moist and find nutrients.
2. Peat is acidic and is used mainly as a soil amendment.
3. Clay can be so dense that roots have a hard time penetrating a clay soil.
4. Loam is best for gardening because it holds water and nutrients. It is a mix of sand and silt with some clay.

Question 9

In plate tectonics theory, the term “plastic” refers to:

1. a solid material that can flow.
2. a polymer.
3. a dense, viscous liquid.
4. molten rock.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanations:

1. The asthenosphere, or mantle beneath the tectonic plates, is solid but is hot enough to slowly flow and push on the tectonic plates. The asthenosphere has a plastic quality.
2. Some polymers are used for man-made plastics, but this is not the meaning of the term as it is used in plate tectonics theory.
3. In plate tectonics theory a plastic is a solid, not a liquid.
4. Molten rock is liquid, whereas a plastic material is solid.

Question 10

How do the nervous system and endocrine system work together to maintain homeostasis?

1. The endocrine system receives and interprets information, and the nervous system provides the necessary chemicals for the body’s response to the information.
2. The nervous system receives and interprets information, and the endocrine system provides the necessary chemicals for the body’s response to the information.
3. The nervous system provides stabilizing responses in a negative feedback loop, and the endocrine system provides accelerating responses in a positive feedback loop.
4. The nervous system and the endocrine system do not work together to maintain homeostasis.

Correct Answer: 2

Explanations:

1. The nervous system receives and interprets information, and the endocrine system provides the chemicals for the body’s response
2. The nervous system governs the body’s response, and the endocrine system helps achieve the response.
3. The nervous and endocrine systems can each be involved in both negative and positive feedback loops.
4. The nervous system and endocrine system work closely together to maintain homeostasis.

Subtest II: Life Science Practice Test

Question 1

Which of the following choices best completes the analogy listed below?

Lipids are to storing energy as nucleic acids are to ____.

1. building and repairing cell parts
2. providing quick energy
3. speeding up chemical reactions
4. carrying genetic material

Correct Answer: 4

Explanations:

1. Proteins are responsible for building and repairing cell parts.
2. Carbohydrates are responsible for providing quick energy.
3. Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up chemical reactions.
4. Nucleic acids include DNA and RNA, which carry the cell’s genetic information.

Question 2

Which of the following lists the structures or processes involved in photosynthesis reactions in the correct order?

1. Photosystem I > Photosystem II > Electron Transport Chain > Calvin Cycle
2. Calvin Cycle > Photosystem I > Photosystem II > Electron Transport Chain
3. Photosystem II > Photosystem I > Electron Transport Chain > Calvin Cycle
4. Photosystem II > Photosystem I > Calvin Cycle > Electron Transport Chain

Correct Answer: 3

Explanations: The correct order is Photosystem II > Photosystem I > Electron Transport Chain > Calvin Cycle. Photosystem II was discovered and named after Photosystem I.

Question 3

Jasmine is out hiking and comes across a berry she does not recognize. She wants to know if it is safe to eat, so she pulls out her field guide and begins to identify the berry. Which taxonomic tool is Jasmine most likely using to do this?

1. dichotomous key
2. cladogram
3. phylogenetic tree
4. pedigree

Correct Answer: 1

Explanations:

1. A dichotomous key features a series of two-choice (dichotomous) questions until the organism is narrowed down enough to identify.
2. A cladogram would be too complicated to use because the differences listed are not always apparent.
3. A phylogenetic tree shows evolutionary relationships, so it would not be practical to identify an unknown plant.
4. A pedigree is used to show the inheritance of a trait, not to identify organisms.

Question 4

Which of the following choices lists the functions of muscle cells?

1. hold tissues together, provide insulation and protection
2. send and receive messages to and from the brain
3. provide a barrier, aid in absorption, line internal surfaces
4. move the skeleton, digest food, and pump blood

Correct Answer: 4

Explanations:

1. Connective cells hold tissues together and provide insulation and protection.
2. Nerve cells send and receive messages to and from the brain.
3. Epithelial cells provide a barrier, aid in absorption, and line internal surfaces.
4. Muscle cells attach to the skeleton to move it, move food through the digestive system to process it, and pump blood throughout the body.

Question 5

Which of the following is not an accurate descriptor of vascular plants?

1. Vascular plants contain an internal transport system for water.
2. Moss is an example of a vascular plant.
3. Vascular plants can control water loss through their leaves.
4. Vascular plants contain an internal transport system for food.

Correct Answer: 2

Explanations:

1. Vascular plants have an internal transport system for water.
2. Moss is a nonvascular plant.
3. Vascular plants can control water loss through their leaves.
4. Vascular plants contain an internal transport system for food.

Question 6

In which of the following phases of the cell cycle does the cell make a complete copy of its DNA?

1. S phase
2. G2 phase
3. prophase
4. cytokinesis

Correct Answer: 1

Explanations:

1. In the S phase or synthesis phase, the cell creates a second complete copy of its DNA.
2. In the G2 phase or second growth phase, the cell continues to grow and replicate organelles needed for cell division.
3. During prophase, the chromosomes condense and a spindle forms.
4. During cytokinesis, the cytoplasm splits and allows the cell to divide into two distinct cells.

Question 7

Which part of the brain is responsible for regulating homeostasis by connecting the nervous and endocrine systems and regulating body responses?

1. thalamus
2. amygdala
3. hippocampus
4. hypothalamus

Correct Answer: 4

Explanations:

1. The thalamus serves as a relay station for the brain. It sorts through information that enters and leaves the cortex.
2. The amygdala plays a role in governing emotional responses.
3. The hippocampus is responsible for transferring information to long-term memory.
4. The hypothalamus connects the nervous and endocrine systems. The nervous system receives and interprets signals, and the endocrine system provides the hormones and chemicals that bring about responses to those signals.

Question 8

Which of the following statements is true about the social systems of animals?

1. Social systems may be complex and include many individuals, or they may be simple and include a single animal that lives independently.
2. Social systems only include animals that live together in single-family units.
3. Social systems refer to ranking systems between organisms that prey upon one another.
4. Social systems are only for the emotional benefit of the animals involved.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanations:

1. Lions and wolves have social systems that involve many individual members. Tigers have social systems in which they live independently and rarely interact with other tigers.
2. Some social systems, like herds of cattle with many family units together in one large group, involve animals that do not live as a single family unit.
3. Food chains are ranking systems between organisms that prey upon one another.
4. Social systems provide protection from harm as well as emotional and social benefit.

Question 9

Which of the following terms refers to the process of pioneer plants breaking rock into soil, leading to the growth of small grasses, then small trees, large trees, and finally a variety of plant and animal species?

1. secondary succession
2. climax community
3. primary succession
4. tertiary succession

Correct Answer: 3

Explanations:

1. Secondary succession takes place where there used to be plants previously.
2. A climax community is the final result of ecological succession, featuring a variety of plant and animal species.
3. Primary succession is typically a slow process and it takes place where no plants previously lived.
4. Tertiary succession is not a type of ecological succession.

Question 10

What is the role of transfer RNA in translation?

1. To carry amino acids and anticodons to the messenger RNA and build polypeptide chains.
2. To link amino acids to one another in order.
3. To provide a codon in a specific order to code for an amino acid.
4. To signal the end of translation.

Correct Answer:  1

Explanations:

1. Transfer RNA carries an anticodon with matching nucleotides for the codon. The corresponding amino acid at the other end of the transfer RNA is released when the anticodon is matched to the correct codon.
2. Ribosomal RNA is responsible for linking the amino acids to one another.
3. The messenger RNA provides the codons in a specific order.
4. The stop codon signals the end of translation.

Subtest II: Chemistry Practice Test

Question 1

Which of the following is NOT a chemical reaction from real life?

1. electricity production by windmills
2. photosynthesis
3. combustion in a diesel engine
4. rusting of nails

Correct Answer: 1

Explanations:

1. The conversion of wind energy into electricity is a physical process.
2. Photosynthesis is a chemical process.
3. Combustion is a chemical process.
4. Rusting is a chemical process.

Question 2

Carbon tetrachloride, CCl

4

, is made during the following reaction: CS

2

+ 3Cl

2

→

CCl

4

+ S

2

Cl

2

.

How many moles of Cl

2

are needed to fully react with 4.2 mol CS

2?

1. 2.8
2. 8.4
3. 1.4
4. 12.6

Correct Answer: D

Explanations:

1. The materials do not fully react with only 2 mol Cl2for each 3 mol CS

   2

   .

2. The materials do not fully react with only 2 mol Cl2for each 1 mol CS

   2

   .

3. The materials do not fully react with only 1 mol Cl2for each 3 mol CS

   2

   .

4. From the reaction, it can be seen that 3 mol Cl2reacts with each 1 mol  CS

   2

   . Set up a ratio to determine the needed number of moles of Cl

   2

   . 4.2 mol CS

   2

   ✕

   3 mol

   Cl

   2

   1 mol

   Cs

   2

   = 12.6 mol Cl

   2

Question 3

Which chemicals are the reactants and which are the products in the following combustion reaction?

CH

4

+ 2O

2

→ CO

2

+ 2H

2

O

1. Reactants: CH4and O

   2

   Products: CO

   2

   and H

   2

   O

2. Reactants: CH4and CO

   2

   Products: O

   2

   and H

   2

   O

3. Reactants: CO2and H

   2

   O

   Products: CH

   4

   and O

   2

4. Reactants: O2and H

   2

   O

   Products: CH

   4

   and CO

   2

Correct Answer: 1

Explanations:

1. The reactants, or chemicals present before the reaction, are on the left side of a chemical equation (CH4and O

   2

   ) and the products, or chemicals present after the reaction, are on the right side of the equation.

2. Reactants are on the left side of the arrow, products are on the right.
3. This is reversed, CO2and H

   2

   O are the results of the reaction (products), the CH

   4

   and O

   2

   are the chemicals that react with each other (reactants).

4. Reactants are on the left side of the arrow, products on the right.

Question 4

Which of the following represents a double replacement reaction?

1. H2CO

   3

   → H

   2

   O + CO

   2

2. NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
3. Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2+ H

   2

4. Mg + O → MgO

Correct Answer: 2

Explanations:

1. In this reaction, carbonic acid decomposes into water and carbon dioxide. This occurs when a carbonated beverage is opened and CO2bubbles out.
2. This is a double replacement reaction. The hydroxide in sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is replaced with chlorine to form salt (NaCl), and the chlorine in hydrochloric acid (HCl) is replaced with the hydroxide to form water.
3. This is a single replacement reaction. Zinc combines with 2 chlorine atoms from the hydrochloric acid (HCl) leaving zinc chloride (ZnCl2) and hydrogen gas (H

   2

   ).

4. This is a combination reaction in which magnesium is combined with oxygen to form magnesium oxide (MgO).

Question 5

Which of the following is NOT a concern related to the use of fission to generate electricity?

1. explosions or leaks that release dangerous materials
2. short lifetimes of fission power plants
3. lack of available fuel
4. storage of radioactive byproducts

Correct Answer: 3

Explanations:

1. Explosions and leaks, such as that at Three Mile Island, are a concern.
2. Fission power plants generally last only 20 years before they must be decommissioned.
3. Lack of fuel is not currently a concern with fission powered electricity production.
4. The half-lives of some fission byproducts are very long, so storage is a concern.

Question 6

Which of the following will increase the rate of dissolution of a solute in a solvent?

1. increased temperature
2. increased particle size
3. an increase in solute mass
4. increased density of the solvent

Correct Answer: 1, 2

Explanations:

1. In most liquids, particles dissolve more quickly at higher temperatures.
2. Smaller particles dissolve more quickly than larger particles.
3. Increasing the mass of the solute does not speed its rate of dissolution.
4. Increasing the solvent density does not increase the rate at which a solute dissolves.

Question 7

Which of the following elements has the lowest reactivity?

1. Kr
2. Fe
3. Cu
4. Ca

Correct Answer: 1

Explanations:

1. Krypton (Kr) is a noble gas. Noble gases have the lowest reactivities of any elements. Reactivity is the ability of an element to chemically combine with another element and release energy. Other than the noble gases, elements on the outer edges of the periodic table are more reactive than elements in the center of the table.
2. Iron (Fe) has a fairly low reactivity, but not as low as that of the noble gases.
3. Copper (Cu) is more reactive than iron.
4. Calcium (Ca) is near the left edge of the periodic table and is quite reactive.

Question 8

Which of the following correctly describes an endothermic reaction?

1. surroundings are heated as the system releases heat and chemical bonds form
2. surroundings are heated as the system releases heat and chemical bonds are broken
3. surroundings are cooled as the system absorbs heat and chemical bonds form
4. surroundings are cooled as the system absorbs heat and chemical bonds are broken

Correct Answer: 4

Explanations:

1. This describes an exothermic reaction.
2. A system must absorb heat to break chemical bonds.
3. A system releases heat to the surroundings when chemical bonds form.
4. An endothermic reaction absorbs heat from the surroundings as chemical bonds are broken.

Question 9

Which of the following is the currently accepted model of the atom?

1. quantum model
2. nuclear model
3. planetary model
4. plum pudding model

Correct Answer: 1

Explanations:

1. Evidence today indicates that the quantum model is the most accurate.
2. The nuclear model was an early theory proposed after Rutherford discovered the atomic nucleus.
3. The Bohr model is often used today when drawing atoms; however, it is more simplistic than the atom indicated by today’s experiments.
4. The plum pudding model was rejected after the discovery of the nucleus.

Question 10

Which of the following is emitted from the nucleus during beta decay?

1. a helium nucleus
2. one or more protons
3. an electron
4. pure energy; no protons, electrons, or neutrons

Correct Answer: 3

Explanations:

1. Beta decay does not involve the emission of a helium nucleus.
2. Beta decay does not involve the emission of protons.
3. During beta decay, a neutron in the nucleus decays into a proton and an electron. The proton remains in the nucleus but the electron is emitted and carries energy away from the nucleus.
4. Both particles and energy are emitted from the nucleus during beta decay.

Subtest II: Earth and Space Sciences Practice Test

Question 1

Which of the following observations first led to the big bang theory for the origin of the universe?

1. low-temperature background radiation
2. differing brightness of stars
3. galactic redshifts
4. pulsars

Correct Answer: 3

Explanations:

1. Low-temperature background radiation was observed in the 1960s and further confirmed the big bang theory.
2. Different star brightnesses is used today to determine the distance to some stars but did not lead to the big bang theory.
3. In 1926 Edwin Hubble observed that the amount of redshift of galaxies varied with distance and concluded that the universe was expanding. This led to the development of the big bang theory.
4. Pulsars are stars that become brighter and dimmer as they rotate. These are used today to determine the distance to some stars but did not lead to the big bang theory.

Question 2

What is the shape of the Milky Way Galaxy?

1. spiral
2. elliptical
3. irregular
4. ovoid

Correct Answer: 1

Explanations:

1. The Milky Way is a spiral galaxy. Our solar system is located in one of the arms of the spiral.
2. The Milky Way is not elliptical.
3. The Milky Way is not an irregular galaxy; it has arms that spiral around the central core.
4. Ovoid is not a name given to the shape of galaxies.

Question 3

How does hydrogen move through the Earth and the atmosphere?

1. as part of the carbon cycle
2. as part of the water cycle
3. as part of the nitrogen cycle
4. as part of the rock cycle

Correct Answer: 2

Explanations:

1. Hydrogen is not a major part of the carbon cycle.
2. Hydrogen, present in water, moves through the Earth and the atmosphere as part of the water cycle.
3. Hydrogen is not a major part of the nitrogen cycle.
4. Hydrogen is not a major part of the rock cycle.

Question 4

Which of the following rocks is sedimentary?

1. bituminous coal, a soft, black, tarry rock formed from plant material
2. gneiss, hard, coarse-grained rock with light and dark bands composed of different minerals
3. pumice, very light rock with a frothy texture
4. basalt, dark rock with small, uniform crystals

Correct Answer: 1

Explanations:

1. Bituminous coal is formed by compaction of materials on Earth’s surface and is therefore sedimentary.
2. Gneiss is metamorphic.
3. Pumice is igneous.
4. Basalt is igneous.

Question 5

Which of the following processes occurs when water in a river slows and drops sediments on the riverbanks?

1. chemical weathering
2. physical weathering
3. erosion
4. deposition

Correct Answer: 4

Explanations:

1. Chemical weathering occurs when a chemical reaction breaks down a rock.
2. Physical weathering occurs when a rock is broken down by physical means.
3. Erosion occurs when rock particles are transported by wind or water.
4. Deposition occurs when new sediments are laid down after having been eroded from another location. Sediments dropped by the river are deposits.

Question 6

Oxygen is stored in each of the following places. Which one is not typically considered part of the oxygen cycle?

1. the mantle
2. the atmosphere
3. living organisms
4. water

Correct Answer: 1

Explanations:

1. Oxygen is stored in mantle rocks, but it is largely unavailable and is not considered a part of the oxygen cycle.
2. The atmosphere is part of the oxygen cycle. Plants release oxygen to the atmosphere during photosynthesis.
3. Living organisms are part of the oxygen cycle. Approximately 65% of the human body is oxygen. Organisms release oxygen when they decompose.
4. Water, made of hydrogen and oxygen, is part of the oxygen cycle.

Question 7

Which of the following events best illustrates the principle of uniformitarianism?

1. tectonic plate movement
2. an earthquake
3. a volcanic eruption
4. global warming

Correct Answer: 1

Explanations:

1. The principle of uniformitarianism states that the geologic processes occurring today are the same as they were in the past. By using this principle and measuring the current movement of tectonic plates, scientists can predict where the plates were in the past.
2. An earthquake is a catastrophic event that changes the landscape in a short time.
3. A volcanic eruption is a catastrophic event that changes the landscape and atmosphere in a short time.
4. The current theory of climate change, formerly called global warming, appears to be caused by an excess of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere. This excess began with the Industrial Revolution and is not a process that occurred in the distant past.

Question 8

In which layer of the atmosphere is the ozone hole?

1. troposphere
2. stratosphere
3. exosphere
4. thermosphere

Correct Answer: 2

Explanations:

1. The troposphere is the atmospheric layer in which we live and does not contain the ozone hole.
2. Atmospheric ozone and the ozone hole are in located in the stratosphere.
3. The exosphere is the outermost layer of the atmosphere and does not contain the ozone hole.
4. The thermosphere is the layer of the atmosphere with the highest temperature but does not contain the ozone hole.

Question 9

What is the state of matter of the Sun’s core?

1. plasma
2. solid
3. liquid
4. gas

Correct Answer: 1

Explanations:

1. The entire Sun, including the core, is a plasma. A plasma is a gas of nuclei and their electrons.
2. No part of the Sun is solid.
3. No part of the Sun is liquid.
4. A gas consists of complete atoms (electrons bound to nuclei). The Sun is so hot that its atoms are completely ionized into plasma.

Question 10

Which of the following is an extremely bright galactic nucleus that may contain a black hole and is located in the center of a very old, very distant galaxy?

1. neutron star
2. red giant
3. supernova
4. quasar

Correct Answer: 4

Explanations:

1. A neutron star is a very small, dense star left after a supernova when the star is not big enough to form a black hole. The core of a neutron star is tightly packed neutrons.
2. A red giant is a phase of star life that occurs as the star begins to burn helium instead of hydrogen.
3. A supernova is a violent explosion of a massive star.
4. A quasar is a very old, very distant, bright galactic nucleus that likely has a black hole at its center.

Subtest II: Physics Practice Test

Question 1

A car traveling at 50 mph collides and locks bumpers with another car at rest. After the collision, the two cars move together in the forward direction. What type of collision occurred and was kinetic energy conserved during the collision?

1. collision – inelastic, kinetic energy – not conserved
2. collision – elastic, kinetic energy – not conserved
3. collision – inelastic, kinetic energy – conserved
4. collision – elastic, kinetic energy –  conserved

Correct Answer: 1

Explanations:

1. The cars locked bumpers so the collision was inelastic. Kinetic energy is not conserved during an inelastic collision.
2. During an elastic collision, objects recoil without losing kinetic energy.
3. Kinetic energy is not conserved during an inelastic collision.
4. The collision was not elastic because the cars stuck together.

Question 2

How does a polarizing filter polarize light?

1. The filter twists the oscillation direction of incident light rays.
2. The filter absorbs all light rays not oscillating in a given direction.
3. The filter transmits all light rays except those oscillating along its polarizing axis.
4. The filter reduces glare from the surface of a lake.

Correct Answer: 2

Explanations:

1. Polarizing filters do not twist the oscillation direction of the light. They only filter the rays that oscillate in the wrong directions.
2. Unpolarized light oscillates in many directions. Polarized light oscillates in a single direction. A polarizing filter transmits only components that are parallel to the polarizing axis of the filter. The filter absorbs the rest.
3. A polarizing filter only transmits light rays that oscillate parallel to its axis.
4. Polarizing filters DO reduce glare, but that does not explain how they polarize light.

Question 3

Ms. Santiago teaches her students how to use a free-body diagram to determine the net force on an object when applying Newton’s second law. She shows the class a free-body diagram of a box that is subject to an upward force of F and a downward force mg. She asks the class to select, from the choices listed, the expression that represents the net force on the box:

Choice 1: F–mg

Choice 2: F+mg

Choice 3: ma

Choice 4: mg

The majority of the students select choice 3. Which of the following concepts should she reteach?

1. In Newton’s second law, the expression for the net force is found from the vector sum of forces shown on the free body diagram.
2. Force vectors that point in opposite directions are subtracted, not added when determining net force.
3. The net force on an object is not equal to its weight.
4. The weight of a box equals the product of its mass and the acceleration due to gravity.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanations:

A. Because they selected choice 3, Ms. Santiago realizes her students still think Newton’s second law (F = ma) is a simple equation to be solved by multiplying mass and acceleration. She should reteach the concept that the left side of this equation, the expression for the net force, is found by combining the forces that act on the object. These forces are shown in the free-body diagram.

B. The majority of her students did not select choice 2, so at this time they do not need another lesson on how to find a vector sum. This lesson may need to be reemphasized later.

C. The majority of her students did not select choice 4, the weight of the box, as the net force.

D. This lesson is about using a free-body diagram to find an expression for the net force, not about how to calculate an object’s weight.

Question 4

Momentum is a product of which of the following quantities?

1. acceleration and time
2. density and temperature
3. mass and velocity
4. force and distance

Correct Answer: 3

Explanations:

1. The product of acceleration and time is not momentum.
2. The product of density and temperature is not momentum.
3. Momentum is the product of mass and velocity. Momentum is a vector quantity, meaning it has direction.
4. The product of force and distance is work, not momentum.

Question 5

How do magnetic field lines show the difference between stronger and weaker magnetic fields?

1. Lines are closer together when the field is strong.
2. Lines are further apart when the field is strong.
3. Lines are darker when the field is strong.
4. Lines have more arrows on them when the field is strong.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanations:

1. The number of field lines in a given area is directly proportional to the magnetic field lines. Lines close together indicate a strong field.
2. Field lines that are farther apart indicate a weaker field.
3. The darkness of the field lines does not correspond to the strength of the field.
4. The number of arrows on the field lines does not correspond to the strength of the field.

Question 6

A thermometer is inserted into a glass of water and the temperature is measured. The process is repeated using the same thermometer in a box of sand. The two temperatures are equal. Which law of thermodynamics is represented in this scenario?

1. the law of enthalpy
2. the first law
3. the second law
4. the zeroth law

Correct Answer: 4

Explanations:

1. The law of enthalpy is not one of the three laws of thermodynamics.
2. The first law equates a change in internal energy with the amount of heat added and work done.
3. The second law states that entropy increases in any process.
4. The zeroth law states that if 2 objects are in thermal equilibrium with a 3rd object (the thermometer), then they are in equilibrium with each other.

Question 7

In order for an object to emit electromagnetic radiation, its temperature must be:

1. at least as high as the temperature of a star.
2. above absolute zero.
3. at least as high as the temperature of a campfire.
4. at least as high as the human body temperature.

Correct Answer: 2

Explanations:

1. Stars are hot enough to emit visible light, x-rays, and gamma rays, but cooler objects can emit lower energy electromagnetic radiation.
2. Objects at all temperatures above absolute zero emit electromagnetic radiation.
3. Campfires emit visible light but cooler objects can emit lower energy electromagnetic radiation.
4. The human body emits infrared light but cooler objects can emit lower energy electromagnetic radiation.

Question 8

After having her students wash their hands, Ms. Akito distributes cups of small dried fruits and a clean paper towel to each student. She asks her students to count and record the initial number of fruits, and return the fruits to the cup. Every three minutes she asks her students to pour the fruits onto their paper towel and eat or dispose of half of the fruits, record the number remaining, and return the remaining fruits to their cups. After all the fruits are gone, the students graph the number of remaining fruits versus time. Which concept is Ms. Akito most likely teaching through this activity?

1. half-life
2. isotope formation
3. alpha decay
4. age of the earth

Answer: 1

Explanations:

1. During one half-life, half of the atoms in a sample decay, on average. Ms. Akito is teaching the concept of half-life during radioactive decay by having students dispose of half of the fruits at the end of each time interval.
2. Isotopes are atoms with identical numbers of protons but different numbers of neutrons. Ms. Akito is not teaching about isotopes.
3. Ms. Akito is not teaching about alpha decay.
4. Ms. Akito is most likely not teaching about the age of the earth.

Question 9

A wave with an amplitude of 7.5 m interferes with a wave of amplitude 2.5 m. What is the amplitude during a moment of destructive interference?

1. 2.5 m
2. 10 m
3. 7.5 m
4. 5 m

Correct Answer: 4

Explanations:

1. The amplitude of destructive interference does not equal the smaller amplitude.
2. The amplitude during constructive interference is 10 m.
3. The amplitude of destructive interference does not equal the larger amplitude.
4. The wave amplitude during a moment of destructive interference is the difference between the two individual wave amplitudes or 5 m.

Question 10

Select from the following list all of the problems with the planetary model of the atom.

1. It did not explain why electrons do not fall into the nucleus.
2. It did not model the behavior of heavier elements.
3. It proposed that atoms are the smallest particles of matter.
4. It did not allow for the presence of neutrons in the atom.

Correct Answers: 1, 2

Explanations:

1. The planetary, or Bohr, model of the atom gives no explanation of why electrons remain in orbit around the nucleus.
2. The planetary model does not correctly explain heavier elements.
3. The planetary model does allow for particles smaller than atoms.
4. The planetary model does not prohibit the existence of neutrons in the nucleus of the atom.